Comments on: Anglicizing Spanish (3) http://www.linguism.co.uk/language/anglicizing-spanish-3 Language in a word Wed, 07 Jan 2009 14:05:26 +0000 http://wordpress.org/?v=2.6 By: vergueishon http://www.linguism.co.uk/language/anglicizing-spanish-3#comment-2823 vergueishon Mon, 13 Oct 2008 01:47:19 +0000 http://www.linguism.co.uk/?p=96#comment-2823 Quick comment--perhaps the distinction in the pronunciation of <a> in Barcelona and Tarragona come from the resemblance this latter one has to the similarly-named spice? Additionally, this pronunciation is similar to other words with analogous spellings (e.g., paragon and Aragon). Just a thought... Quick comment–perhaps the distinction in the pronunciation of in Barcelona and Tarragona come from the resemblance this latter one has to the similarly-named spice? Additionally, this pronunciation is similar to other words with analogous spellings (e.g., paragon and Aragon).

Just a thought…

]]> By: Lazar http://www.linguism.co.uk/language/anglicizing-spanish-3#comment-1768 Lazar Mon, 18 Aug 2008 05:38:00 +0000 http://www.linguism.co.uk/?p=96#comment-1768 I've read that there's debate over whether Spanish has consistent mid-vowel allophones as claimed by Navarro Tomás. (I found an acoustic study on Google that disputes his idea.) When I speak Spanish (as a non-native) I just use mid [e] and [o]. One interesting question relates to the treatment of c/z: should Americans pronounce Spanish placenames like Ibiza with [T], and should the British pronounce New World placenames like La Paz with [s]? Or should Americans just take New World Spanish as our model for all anglicizations, and the British take European Spanish? I’ve read that there’s debate over whether Spanish has consistent mid-vowel allophones as claimed by Navarro Tomás. (I found an acoustic study on Google that disputes his idea.) When I speak Spanish (as a non-native) I just use mid [e] and [o].

One interesting question relates to the treatment of c/z: should Americans pronounce Spanish placenames like Ibiza with [T], and should the British pronounce New World placenames like La Paz with [s]? Or should Americans just take New World Spanish as our model for all anglicizations, and the British take European Spanish?

]]> By: Nigel Greenwood http://www.linguism.co.uk/language/anglicizing-spanish-3#comment-1696 Nigel Greenwood Sat, 09 Aug 2008 11:54:01 +0000 http://www.linguism.co.uk/?p=96#comment-1696 Re Guevara. Sorry, I now see that the /b/ is phonemic, not phonetic. Nigel Re Guevara. Sorry, I now see that the /b/ is phonemic, not phonetic.

Nigel

]]> By: Nigel Greenwood http://www.linguism.co.uk/language/anglicizing-spanish-3#comment-1695 Nigel Greenwood Sat, 09 Aug 2008 10:46:45 +0000 http://www.linguism.co.uk/?p=96#comment-1695 My only footnote to this magisterial discussion would be to point out the curiously common British /aɪˈbiːθə/ for Ibiza. I suspect that the pronunciation of Ibiza is a bit of a class shibboleth in the UK. Nigel PS I think there's a typo in the IPA for (Spanish) Guevara. My only footnote to this magisterial discussion would be to point out the curiously common British /aɪˈbiːθə/ for Ibiza. I suspect that the pronunciation of Ibiza is a bit of a class shibboleth in the UK.

Nigel

PS I think there’s a typo in the IPA for (Spanish) Guevara.

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